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"Proof" that homophobia is associated with homosexual arousal.

Started by Kai, December 09, 2011, 05:35:08 PM

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East Coast Hustle

If so, I'm'a let this go because I feel silly feeding into such a patently absurd discussion.
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The Devil is in the details; God is in the nuance.


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Quote from: Fuck You One-Eye on December 14, 2011, 09:07:10 PM
so, in other words, it's NOT HATRED AT ALL.

Also, the crappiness of this particular test is a completely separate issue from the issue of whatever nonsense you're trying to make sense out of now and conflating them serves no purpose other than to obscure both arguments.

ETA: I see, so whether or not something is outright hatred or mild prejudice that's recognized by the person who holds it and subsequently does their best to keep it to themselves and not inflict those prejudices on other people is a "semantic detail".

For real? this is your argument? :lulz:

You're introducing a bunch of things that don't really make any sense at all. You seem pretty upset over the idea that disappointment actually does rate somewhere on the scale of homophobia.

I am not even sure what on earth you're arguing. Are you arguing that disappointment in a son's gayness is not reflective of prejudice?

Are you saying it's not a negative reaction?

Are you trying to claim that recognizing it as a negative reaction equates it with more severe forms of prejudice?

What, exactly, is it that you think I am trying to say?

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